International Commercial Air Transport - Aeroplanes

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International Commercial Air Transport - Aeroplanes

International Commercial Air Transport - Helicopters

International Operations - Aeroplanes & Helicopters

Вопрос 2

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for a SRA non-precision approach terminating at

1 NM?

Ответы

250 ft

350 ft

200 ft

Вопрос 3

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?

Ответы

200 ft

350 ft

125 ft

Вопрос 4

What does abbreviation MASPS mean?

Ответы

Minimum Aviation System Performance Standards

Maximum Approved Seating Propagation Standards

Minimum Airport Specifications and Personnel Standards

Maximum Approved System Power and Specifications

Вопрос 5

The period of validity of an operator proficiency check is:

Ответы

2 years

Months

12 months

18 months

Вопрос 6

If the whole flight is in MNPSA on the organised track system, what should be entered on the flight plan?

Ответы

Position at every 10 deg latitude.

PTS plus daily code.

OTS plus daily code.

NAT plus daily code.

Вопрос 7

When are the flight crew members allowed to leave their stations?

Ответы

When having lunch.

In the performance of their duties.

Only when the captain allows it.

At any time specified by the Operations Manual.

Вопрос 8

Aeroplanes with a Take-off Mass greater than 5700 kg shall be fitted with an independent automatically

operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial horizon for:

Ответы

60 minutes

15 minutes

2 hours

Minutes

Вопрос 9

According to EASA AIR OPS, the public address system must be audible and intelligible at:

1) all passenger seats

2) toilets

3) cabin crew seats

4) work stations

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

1,2,3

1,2, 3,4

1,2

Вопрос 10

An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the:

Ответы

Operational flight plan.

flight plan processing.

flight route sheet.

АТС (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.

Вопрос 11

According to AIR OPS, which of the following is the correct definition of "dry lease"?

Ответы

The person leasing the aircraft is responsible for fuel etc.

The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the person to whom it is leased.

The leased aircraft comes complete with flight crew.

The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the person from who it is leased.

Вопрос 12

A cut-in area:

Ответы

always has a crash axe located next to it.

is designated as a weaker fuselage area.

is lit internally by the emergency lighting system.

Is delineated by external markings having right angled corners.

Вопрос 13

On the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following

information:

Desired track (DTK): 100°

Track (TK): 120°

You can conclude that the:

Ответы

aircraft is converging towards its ideal course.

Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L).

aircraft is diverging from its ideal course.

Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R).

Вопрос 14

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a non-precision

approach available?

Ответы

Circling minima.

RVR according to CAT I.

Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH).

Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 1000 m / 200 ft.

Вопрос 15

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, for aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude of 39000 ft, the

total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of:

Ответы

passengers by at least 10%.

seats by at least 10%.

seats.

passengers.

Вопрос 16

Minimum time route is a route calculated for:

Ответы

a period of 24 hours.

Hrs

60 min

Вопрос 18

An operator must select two destination alternates when either:

Ответы

no meteorological information is available.

Both A and В are correct.

neither A nor В is correct.

the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate

that during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival,

the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.

Вопрос 19

The abbreviation MNPS means:

Ответы

Main Navigation Performance Specification.

Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification.

Maximum Navigation Performance Specification.

1000 m

800 m

Вопрос 21

On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:

Ответы

Minutes.

10 minutes.

Вопрос 25

You are at 60°S 100°E, using a polar stereographic chart with the grid based on the 180° meridian. Grid North

is in the direction of Geographic North. If you are heading 258° (G), what is your true heading?

Ответы

358°

338°

178°

158°

Вопрос 26

In accordance with the EASA AIR OPS and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes, the carriage of a

lifejacket for each person on board is compulsory when the aeroplane is:

1) cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine

failure

2) is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM

3) is using departure and arrival paths over water and when a ditching probability exists

4) is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

3,4

2,3

1,3

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 27

In accordance with the EASA AIR OPS, an aeroplane equipped with 300 passenger seats and effectively

carrying 189 passengers, must be equipped with:

Ответы

2 first aid kits.

5 first aid kits.

4 first aid kits.

First aid kits.

Вопрос 28

When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the

commander:

Ответы

14000 ft

Вопрос 30

For a category I precision approach, the decision height (DH) cannot be lower than:

Ответы

150 ft

250 ft

100 ft

Вопрос 31

Following an accident involved with dangerous goods, how much time does an operator have before he must

report to the competent authority?

Ответы

24 hours

Hours

12 hours

48 hours

Вопрос 32

Your HF radio is unusable. Are you able to cross the NAT?

Ответы

circling visibility, MDH and ceiling for the period ETA+/-1 hour.

circling visibility, MDH and ceiling at ETA.

Вопрос 36

According to EASA AIR OPS, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the

windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a:

Ответы

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats.

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 6 seats.

Climb or descend 10ОО ft.

Climb 500 ft or descend 1 ООО ft.

Вопрос 39

When approaching a cleared Flight level in RVSM airspace, the vertical speed should not exceed:

Ответы

2000 ft/min

350 ft/min

Ft/min

750 ft/min

Вопрос 40

You are parked on a ramp at a latitude of 30° N with a heading of 120° showing on a gyro compass. You

experience a delay of 2 hrs 30 min. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device. What is the effect on

your gyro compass indication?

Ответы

18.75°

-32.5°

32.5°

-18.75°

Вопрос 41

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a

flight is stored for a minimum period of:

Ответы

6 months.

Months.

1 year.

1 month.

Вопрос 42

According to AIR OPS, planning minima for a destination aerodrome (heliport) with an applicable precision

approach procedure is:

Ответы

RVR / visibility and ceiling at or above DH specified in accordance with AIR OPS, Part-CAT.

Non-precision minima.

110% of the seating capacity.

150% of the seating capacity.

100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat row.

Вопрос 44

Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80

NM from the shore. According to EASA AIR OPS, the minimum number of passenger lifejackets to be on board

is;

Ответы

none if equipped with life rafts.

Вопрос 45

In accordance with AIR OPS, if the flight is to be carried out at FL290, demonstration about oxygen equipment

must be completed before:

Ответы

the aircraft reaches FL140.

the aircraft reaches FL250.

the aircraft reaches FL100.

Take-off.

Вопрос 46

The information to consider for a straight-in VOR approach is:

1) RVR/Visibility

2) the ceiling

3) the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H)

4) the decision altitude/height (DA/H)

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

Ответы

1,2.4

1,4

1,3.4

1,2.3

Вопрос 47

A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

Ответы

increased Mach number stability.

Reduced range.

increased flight envelope.

increased manoeuvring limits.

Вопрос 48

An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be

equipped with at least:

Ответы

6 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

7 hand fire extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

No.

Yes. but it can be used while waiting for approval.

No. provided it has been permanently fitted into the instrument panel and approved by an authorized EASA maintenance facility.

Yes.

Вопрос 50

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certificated to EASA CS-25, across an area in which search and

rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for

making an emergency landing at a distance greater than:

Ответы

60 minutes at cruising speed.

120 minutes at cruising speed.

30 minutes at cruising speed.

Minutes at cruising speed.

Вопрос 51

What is the Polar Track System?

Ответы

6 tracks between Hawaii and USA.

5 routes between Alaska over the North Pole to Japan.

2 flex tracks from Tokyo to Honolulu.

1, 3

1, 15

Вопрос 53

If there is unauthorized use of equipment that affects the aircraft system, the commander:

Ответы

Must not authorize its use.

may authorize its use at his discretion.

may authorize its use for the whole flight.

may authorize its use for take-off and landing.

Вопрос 54

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro

heading, follow a:

Ответы

rhumb line.

straight map line.

spherical flight segment.

Great circle line.

Вопрос 55

According to EASA AIR OPS, a category С aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual

manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

Ответы

3600 m

1500 m

1600 m

Вопрос 56

Astronomic precession is:

Ответы

Category В.

category D.

category E.

category С.

Вопрос 58

In accordance with EASA regulations, when conducting Special VFR (SVFR) flight the following conditions shall

be observed by the pilot:

Ответы

remain clear of clouds.

maintain a speed of 140 kts IAS or less.

All of the above.

maintain ground surface in sight.

Вопрос 59

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC.

You will normally be:

Ответы

outside the validity period of the organised track system.

within the polar track system.

in a day-time organised track system.

(a) is correct (b) is correct

(a) is incorrect; (b) is correct

(a) is incorrect; (b) is incorrect

(a) is correct (b) is incorrect

Вопрос 64

According to AIR OPS on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather

conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:

Ответы

the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.

the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.

the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time.

When operating under IFR.

Вопрос 66

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the

longitudinal separation must not be below:

Ответы

15 minutes.

Minutes.

20 minutes.

10 minutes.

Вопрос 67

Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs. Please choose the correct statement:

Ответы

Smoking is not allowed.

Aeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped

with a means of indicating to some passengers and and all cabin crew members when seat belts shall be

fastened and when smoking is not allowed.

Aeroplanes in which all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped with a

means of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when

smoking is not allowed.

Aeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped

with a means of indicating to passengers, who are not visible for the crew, and cabin crew when seat

belts shall be fastened and when smoking is not allowed.

Вопрос 68

While in NAT MNPS airspace, both LRNS fail and there is no АТС contact (or reply from АТС). What intentions

should be transmitted by the crew on frequency 121.5?

Ответы

Landing at the nearest airfield/aerodorme.

Вопрос 70

What is the relative bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315° at 1840Z if

the grid is aligned with the prime meridian? Assume zero wind.

Ответы

000°

035°

180°

325°

Вопрос 71

In accordance to EASA AIR OPS, VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have:

Ответы

Вопрос 74

The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not exceed:

Ответы

100 duty hours in any 14 consecutive days.

100 duty hours in any 28 consecutive days.

2, 3. 4 5

1,3,5

1, 2, 3, 4 5, 6

Вопрос 76

In accordance with AIR OPS, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel

for:

Ответы

45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.

45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1 500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.

Younger than 24 months.

Вопрос 78

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or

after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a

cockpit voice recorder which records:

1) Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio.

2) The aural environment of the flight deck.

3) The cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane's interphone system.

4) Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system.

5) Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker.

6) Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if

installed.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2, 4, 5, 6

2, 3. 4 6

1, 2, 3, 5, 6

1, 2. 4, 5, 6

Вопрос 79

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS and if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aircraft

must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:

Ответы

plus 30%.

plus 10%.

Minutes.

5 minutes.

Вопрос 81

According to EASA regulations, an operator shall not operate a turbine propeller powered aeroplane with a

maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or having a maximum approved passenger seating

configuration of more than nine seats or a turbojet powered aeroplane unless it is equipped with an altitude

alerting system capable of alerting the flight crew when:

Ответы

exceeding the service ceiling of the aeroplane.

All of the above

commercial air transport operations (CAT) and commercial specialised operations

non-commercial specialised operations with complex motor-powered aircraft

Вопрос 83

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace,

the pilot must:

Ответы

change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.

join one of the so-called special routes.

The Operator.

Вопрос 85

In accordance with EASA AIR OPS, for a pressurized aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000

ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a

period in no case less than:

Ответы

1 hour

Hours

10 minutes

30 minutes

Вопрос 86

Who is responsible for ensuring cabin crew members are qualified in their duties?

Ответы

The senior cabin crew member.

The operator.

The pilot-in-command.

EASA.

Вопрос 87

An operator shall not appoint a person to the post of senior cabin crew member unless that person has at

least experience as an operating cabin crew member and has completed an appropriate courses.

Ответы

6 months

9 months

Months

24 months

Вопрос 88

In accordance with EASA regulations, the operator shall ensure that:

Ответы

for VFR flights conducted in class В airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1 000 m.

for VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050 m (10000 ft) is at leasts

km (clear of cloud).

Maximum continuous power.

minimum power.

Вопрос 90

Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the

ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground greater than:

(Note: assume aircraft certified after 31 March 2000)

Ответы

8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.

6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.

120

Вопрос 93

Which statement is true regarding first-aid kits?

Ответы

1,2.4

2, 3.4

Вопрос 95

When does the oxygen equipment need to be checked for a flight scheduled at FL290?

Ответы

Before FL100.

Before take-off.

Before FL130.

Before taxiing.

Вопрос 96

On a polar stereographic chart where the Earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is

20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is:

Ответы

40 NM

4.0 NM

9.2 NM

Вопрос 97

According to EASA AIR OPS, without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome

for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A, with a maximum approved passenger seating

configuration of 20 or more, is the distance flown in minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

Ответы

120

Вопрос 98

According to EASA AIR OPS, the MDH and minimum meteorological visibility for a category С aircraft circling

are respectively:

Ответы

400 ft 1 500 m.

Ft 2400 m .

700 ft; 3600 m.

500 ft 1600 m.

Вопрос 99

When a potentially hazardous condition is encountered in flight:

Ответы

5100 ft

3300 ft

4500 ft

Вопрос 103

To whom may the commander delegate the conduct of the flight?

Ответы

Nobody.

Any pilot licence holder.

The licence holder of a CPL with an instrument rating.

True North.

Grid North.

Magnetic North.

Gyro North.

Вопрос 106

During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew

contains parameters below the crews operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not

be continued is:

Ответы

the glideslope interception.

the FAF.

Ft above the aerodrome.

the middle marker.

Вопрос 107

According to EASA AIR OPS, a category IIIA precision approach (CAT IIIA) is an approach which may be carried

out with a runway visual range of at least:

Ответы

250 m

50 m

100 m

Вопрос 108

Who has the final say if someone is allowed in the cockpit?

Ответы

Commander

operator

safety manager

flight safety officer

Вопрос 109

The minimum time track is a track defined for:

Ответы

a period of 24 hours.

a period of 12 hours.

A given travel.

aircraft flying in MNPS airspace.

Вопрос 110

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior АТС clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level

Ответы

Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.

Use.

Вопрос 112

The operator shall establish and maintain a flight data monitoring programme for aeroplanes with a

maximum certificated take-off mass of more than:

Ответы

5700 kg

15000 kg

10000 kg

Вопрос 113

A manual inflation handle:

Ответы

Вопрос 117

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised

Track System) must be done:

Ответы

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2, 4.5

Вопрос 119

What is the NAT Track Message?

Ответы

The АТС clearance given before the boundary window.

2 hours with normal cruise consumption.

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1 500 ft.

30 minutes with normal cruising consumption.

Вопрос 121

Do infants require their own seat?

Ответы

Yes, but this seat has to be near a responsible adult.

No.

Yes.

Yes, but a child restraint is not necessary.

Вопрос 122

In which chapter (part) of the Operations Manual would you find information about noise abatement procedures (NAP)?

Ответы

Part А & В

Part В & С

Part A

Part D

Вопрос 123

The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

Ответы

Part A

Part В

Part D

Вопрос 125

If a piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft becomes inoperative while you are still parked at the gate the reference

document you should use before making the decision to proceed is:

Ответы

the EASA AIR OPS.

the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".

the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".

the Aircraft Flight Manual.

Вопрос 126

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the

conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:

Ответы

Part A

PartC

Part D

Part В

Вопрос 128

Who shall amend the MEL after any applicable change to the MMEL within the acceptable timescales?

Ответы

The manufacturer.

The state of registry.

The operator.

The pilot-in-command.

Вопрос 129

Refer to commercial aircraft operations. In what part of the operations manual would you find type specific information?

Ответы

Part D

Part В

PartC

Part A

Вопрос 130

The Master Minimum Equipment list (MMEL) is established by:

Ответы

the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority.

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer.

PartC

Вопрос 132

The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather conditions of:

Ответы

steady snow.

Frost.

rain on a cold soaked wing.

freezing fog.

Вопрос 133

After de-icing/anti-icing still in freezing conditions, how should you position the aircraft?

Ответы

In propwash but not jet wash.

In jet wash but not prop wash.

In neither.

In prop and jet wash.

Вопрос 134

When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

Ответы

On rotation.

Until one can use one's own anti-icing equipment.

When clear of icing conditions.

1,3,5

2, 4,5

Вопрос 137

The greatest possibility of ice build-up, while flying under icing conditions, occurs on:

Ответы

only the pitot and static probes.

The aircraft front areas.

the upper and lower rudder surfaces.

the upper and lower wing surfaces.

Вопрос 138

For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of the following types of weather condition will the

holdover (protection) time be shortest?

Ответы

Frost.

Freezing fog.

Freezing rain.

Steady snow.

Вопрос 139

According to EASA AIR OPS, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions unless:

Ответы

1,2,3,4,5,6

1,2,4,6

Вопрос 142

When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?

Ответы

From the end of the anti-icing procedure.

Stalling speed.

tuck under.

roll rate.

Вопрос 144

Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight in icing conditions?

Ответы

carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure.

complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded.

Вопрос 147

In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

Ответы

possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.

1,3,5

Вопрос 149

During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts:

Ответы

ENR

GEN

Вопрос 153

As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are:

1) ATIS.

2) NOTAMs.

3) BIRDTAMs.

4) Weather radar.

5) The report by another crew.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

1,3,4

1,2, 3, 4,5

2,5

1,2,5

Вопрос 154

What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?

Ответы

Shell crackers.

Flashing lights.

Model predators.

Recorded distress calls.

Вопрос 155

The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available

Ответы

the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc.

various visual methods.

To 150 m.

Вопрос 157

What is the most effective method for scaring birds?

Ответы

Visual methods.

Making movement.

Shell crackers.

Scarecrow.

Вопрос 158

Which statement is correct concerning noise abatement?

Ответы

Reverse thrust is not permitted at any time.

Thrust reverse may be permitted, but only at idle power.

At night, thrust reverse is not permitted.

Ft AGL.

500 ft AGL.

3000 ft AGL.

1 500 ft AGL.

Вопрос 161

Under what conditions can the choice of runway disregard any noise abatement procedures?

1) Crosswind >15 knots

2) Tailwind > 5 knots

3) Wind shear and thunderstorm reported

Ответы

1,2,3

2,3

1,2

1,3

Вопрос 162

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight

compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 / EASA AIR OPS?

Ответы

The state in which the aircraft is operating.

The state of the operator.

The commander.

The operator.

Вопрос 163

According to the recommended noise abatement take-off and climb procedure 2 (NADP 2) established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I

part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to climb power has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches:

Ответы

3000 ft

2000 ft

1 500 ft

Вопрос 164

According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available

indicate that the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:

Ответы

is either procedure 1 or 2, because there is not difference in noise distribution.

depends on the wind component.

Is procedure 1.

is procedure 2.

Вопрос 165

Noise abatement procedure type 1 (NADP 1) is used for noise reduction:

Ответы

Near the airfield.

away from the airfield.

depends on the prevailing wind.

not applicable - there is no such procedure.

Вопрос 166

Can reverse thrust be used at 23:59 UTC if noise abatement hours are from 22:00 - 03:00 UTC?

Ответы

Only in case of a brake malfunction.

Never.

1,3,4

1,2,4

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 168

In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:

Ответы

1 500 ft

1000 ft

500 ft

Вопрос 172

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by the flight deck crew is to:

Ответы

determine the origin of the smoke.

start an emergency descent.

2, 3,4

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 174

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:

1)H20

2) C02

3) dry chemical

4) halon

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

Ответы

3,4

2, 3,4

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 175

In general, what is one of your initial actions after a high-speed aborted take-off with overheated brakes?

Ответы

1,2,3

2,3,4

1,3,4

Вопрос 178

What is the main advantage of Halon 1301 over C02 for extinguishing an aircraft cabin fire?

Ответы

Crash axes or crowbars.

a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.

Вопрос 180

During cruise you encounter an engine fire indication. What is your first action?

Ответы

You use the rudder trim to compensate the adverse yaw.

You pull the fire extinguisher handle of the related engine.

1,2, 3,4

2,4

3,4

Вопрос 183

What type of fire extinguisher would be used on a propane fire?

Ответы

Water.

Sand.

Foam.

Dry powder.

Вопрос 184

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:

1) a paper fire

2) a hydrocarbon fire

3) a fabric fire

4) an electrical fire

5) a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2, 3,4

1,3,5

1,2, 3, 4,5

2, 4,5

Вопрос 185

A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of:

1) paper, fabric, plastic

2) flammable liquids

3) flammable gases

4) metals

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

2,3,4

1,2,4

1,2,3

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 186

A class A fire is a fire of:

Ответы

electrical origin.

Halon.

dry powder.

Вопрос 188

In case of an engine exhaust pipe (tailpipe) fire while on the ground, you should abort the starting procedure and:

Ответы

Carry out a dry cranking.

fight the nozzle fire with a water fire extinguisher.

carry out a damp cranking.

pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire extinguishers.

Вопрос 189

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:

1) a water fire extinguisher

2) a powder or chemical fire extinguisher

3) a halon fire extinguisher

4) a C02 fire extinguisher

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

2, 3,4

1,2

3,4

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 190

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:

1) solids (fabric, plastic, etc.)

2) liquids (alcohol, gasoline, etc.)

3) gas

4) metals (aluminium, magnesium, etc.)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

1,2,3

1 ,2,4

2, 3,4

1,2,3,4

Вопрос 191

А С02 fire extinguisher can be used for:

1) a paper fire

2) a hydrocarbon fire

3) a fabric fire

4) an electrical fire

5) a wood fire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

2, 3,4

1,2, 3, 4,5

2, 4,5

1,3,5

Вопрос 192

An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31 000 ft. What is the initial action by the operating crew?

Ответы

Place the seat belts sign to ON.

Press the passenger oxygen masks release button.

To put on oxygen masks.

Transmit a MAYDAY message.

Вопрос 193

According to EASA AIR OPS, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of mask, in pressurized

aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:

Ответы

41 000 ft

39000 ft

10000 ft

Вопрос 194

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following

altitude:

Ответы

Ft (approx. 3 000 m).

14000 ft (approx. 4200 m).

12 000 ft (approx. 3 600 m).

8000 ft (approx. 2400 m).

Вопрос 195

Following an explosive decompression and an emergency descent, what is the maximum altitude (without oxygen supply) at which

the flight crew efficiency is not impaired?

Ответы

2500 ft

14000 ft

25000 ft

Вопрос 196

Flying at FL390, before what cabin altitude must the oxygen drop out masks be automatically presented?

Ответы

14000 ft

13000 ft

12000 ft

Вопрос 197

Following an explosive decompression at FL370, your first action will be:

Ответы

To put on the oxygen mask.

to comfort your passengers.

to set the transponder to 7700.

to warn the АТС.

Вопрос 198

When does a pilot start to physically become affected due to lack of oxygen, above what level?

Ответы

14000 ft

8000 ft

24000 ft

Вопрос 199

Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by:

1) a change in environmental sounds.

2) the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb.

3) the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft decreases.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2,3

1,3

1,2,3

1,2

Вопрос 200

Refer to figure 070-05.

Due to a cabin pressurization defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin

altitude to be greater than 14000 feet because the oxygen masks would be deployed, the maximum achievable flight altitude is

approximately:

Ответы

20000 ft

23000 ft

22000 ft

Вопрос 201

What might be noticeable during a SLOW decompression?

Ответы

A decrease in cabin altitude.

1,2,3,4

1,2,4

1,2,3

Вопрос 203

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

Ответы

remains constant.

increases.

Decreases.

attains its maximum permitted operating limit.

Вопрос 204

A slow decompression may be caused by:

1) a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight

2) loss of a cabin window

3) malfunction of all pressurised systems

4) loss of a door

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

2,4

1,2, 3,4

1,3

1,2,3

Вопрос 205

Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter-demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air

that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator

supply to the mask become pure oxygen only?

Ответы

14000 ft

8000 ft

24000 ft

Вопрос 206

Which of the following might be a noticeable effect clearly indicating a rapid decompression has just occurred during level flight?

Ответы

Loud bang or similar noise.

Rapid temperature increase.

Rapid cabin rate of descent indication.

Influx of air into the cabin.

Вопрос 207

When flying in straight and level flight at FL290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow

depressurization, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:

Ответы

A rate of climb.

a rate of descent of approximately 300 ft/min.

zero

a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

Вопрос 208

A rapid decompression may be caused by:

1) a leak in a door seal during normal pressurized flight

2) loss of a cabin compartment window

3) malfunction of all pressurization systems

4) loss of a cargo-hold door

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

1,2,3

2,4

1,3

1,2, 3,4

Вопрос 209

Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize:

Ответы

A rapid depressurization.

a plastic fire.

an electrical fire.

a slow depressurization.

Вопрос 210

Refer to figure 070-05.

Due to a cabin pressurization defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin

altitude being greater than 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

Ответы

2900 ft

12000 ft

8600 ft

Вопрос 211

A cabin crew member suspects a slow decompression is occurring. What is the first course of action?

Ответы

Walk through the cabin and check passengers.

Continue with current task because a slow decompression will be compensated for by the pressurization system.

Alert the flight crew.

Done oxygen mask.

Вопрос 212

Refer to figure 070-05.

Due to a cabin pressurization defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin

altitude being greater than 10000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

Ответы

5000 ft

14000 ft

12000 ft

Вопрос 213

Which of the following might be a noticeable effect clearly indicating an explosive decompression has just occurred?

Ответы

Slight ear discomfort.

Unusual 'surging' sounds coming from the engines, typically followed by all engines shutting down.

Significant temperature increase occurring suddenly.

1,2

3,4

2,3

Вопрос 215

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is approximately:

Ответы

Seconds.

30 seconds.

5 minutes.

1 minute.

Вопрос 216

A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05, an inversion is reported at 300 feet with

turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?

Ответы

Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.

Take-off is not possible under these conditions.

Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.

1,3

1,4

2,3

Вопрос 219

Wind shear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To

counter the effects of wind shear the amount of control action that is required is:

Ответы

medium.

Substantial.

none

small.

Вопрос 220

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to wind shear with an increasing tailwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the

aircraft:

1) Flies above the glide path.

2) Flies below the glide path.

3) Has an increasing true airspeed.

4) Has a decreasing true airspeed.

The combination of correct statements is:

Ответы

1,4

2,3

2,4

1,3

Вопрос 221

On passing through a shear line, why does the IAS change?

Ответы

Wind shear alters the air density, which affects the ASI reading.

The inertia of the aircraft will initially keep it at its original speed in relation to the ground.

Wind shear changes the static pressure, which makes the ASI miss-read.

A decreased mass of air is entering the pitot tube.

Вопрос 222

After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing headwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft:

1) flies above the climb-out path

2) flies below the climb-out path

3) has an increasing true airspeed

4) has a decreasing true airspeed

Ответы

1,4

2,3

2,4

1,3

Вопрос 223

In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:

Ответы

low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.

Kts

Вопрос 225

A downdraft is observed, lasting for around 2-3 minutes and approximately 4 km in size. The weather phenomena is called:

Ответы

standing wave

sea breeze

Microburst

inversion

Вопрос 226

When would reduced take-off thrust not be used?

Ответы

1,3

2,3

1,4

2,4

Вопрос 228

just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be:

1) an increase in headwind

2) an increase in tailwind

3) better climb performance

4) a decrease in climb gradient

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

1,4

2,4

2,3

1,3

Вопрос 229

When experiencing a downdraft, what effect does this have on a aircraft during approach?

Ответы

Flight above glide path.

Decreased angle of attack.

Reduces rate of decent.

Causes the aircraft to pitch up or down dependant on the strength of the downdraft.

Вопрос 230

When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:

Ответы

To descend.

not to change its trajectory.

to climb.

to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength.

Вопрос 231

In case of an unexpected encounter with wind shear on a final approach to landing, you will:

1) set the maximum take-off thrust

2) increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker

3) pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)

4) keep the airplanes current configuration

5) try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

3,5

1,3,5

2,3

1,2,4

Вопрос 232

What do you do in a microburst?

1) Apply engine power.

2) Retract speed brakes.

3) Retract flaps and gear.

4) Retract all drag devices.

5) Pitch up to stick shaker.

Ответы

1,3,5

1,4,5

1,2,5

2,3,5

Вопрос 233

In a microburst downdraughts in the order of 3000 to 4000 ft/min can produce vector changes in horizontal wind of:

Ответы

30 to 40 kts.

To 80 kts.

10 to 20 kts.

100 to 140 kts.

Вопрос 234

Which wind shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?

Ответы

Increasing tailwind.

None of the above.

Decreasing tailwind.

Decreasing headwind.

Вопрос 235

Which parameter will change first, when penetrating a horizontal wind shear?

Ответы

Indicated airspeed.

Vertical speed.

Pitch angle.

Ground speed.

Вопрос 236

In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating

power and pitch it may be necessary to:

Ответы

1,3

2,3

1,4

Вопрос 239

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to wind shear with a decreasing headwind. In the absence of a pilot action, the

aircraft:

1) flies above the glide path

2) flies below the glide path

3) has an increasing true airspeed

4) has a decreasing true airspeed

The combination of correct statements is:

Ответы

1,3

2,3

2,4

1,4

Вопрос 240

On the approach you encounter a wind shear and have to go around. You should apply go around thrust and:

Ответы

avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres.

take gear and flap in.

Microburst.

Вопрос 243

Which initial cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?

Ответы

IAS decreases / pitch up / altitude decreases.

-80 kts

Вопрос 245

Wind shear is:

Ответы

2,3

Вопрос 248

What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?

1) Wing tip vortices.

2) Engines.

3) High lift devices.

4) Size of the landing gear.

Ответы

2,3

1,4

Вопрос 249

a LIGHT aircraft departing after a MEDIUM what is the minimum time for wake turbulence separation?

Ответы

1 minute

Minutes

5 minutes

3 minutes

Вопрос 250

According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:

Ответы

LIGHT aircraft taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway.

MEDIUM aircraft taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760 m.

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft.

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes.

9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes.

Вопрос 252

Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a LIGHT aircraft behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY

aeroplane on approach to the same runway?

Ответы

Minutes

5 minutes

4 minutes

2 minutes

Вопрос 253

In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that:

Ответы

separate outwards to the left side only.

stagnate on the runway.

Kg or less.

Вопрос 257

The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft

1) slow

2)heavy

3) in a clean configuration

4) flying with a high thrust

The combination of correct statement is:

Ответы

1,2, 3,4

1,4

2, 3,4

1,2,3

Вопрос 258

Wake turbulence risk is highest:

Ответы

if just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied reverse-thrust just prior to take-off.

following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

Вопрос 265

The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:

Ответы

clockwise.

counterclockwise.

MEDIUM following a HEAVY.

HEAVY following a MEDIUM.

HEAVY following a HEAVY.

Вопрос 268

At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane is:

Ответы

Heavy at low airspeed.

heavy at high airspeed.

light at low airspeed.

light at high airspeed.

Вопрос 269

Wake turbulence is created by:

Ответы

Minutes.

4 minutes.

Вопрос 273

When landing behind a large aircraft the effect of wake turbulence are likely to be worst in conditions of:

Ответы

light wind down the runway.

strong wind down the runway.

Light crosswind.

strong crosswind.

Вопрос 274

What should a pilot do if his/her aircraft is subject to an act of unlawful interference and contact to an ATS unit cannot be

established?

Ответы

1,2,3

Вопрос 276

What must be included in the security and training procedures created by the operator?

1. Specific aircraft type checklists

2. Detection and removal of a bomb

3. Discovery of a suspicious package

4. Sabotage procedures

Ответы

2, 3,4

1,3,4

1,2, 3,4

1,4

Вопрос 277

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel

considerations:

Ответы

Code 7500.

Вопрос 279

What do you use for a security search procedure during flight?

Ответы

A checklist.

A search procedure is only used for ground operations. If an act of sabotage is suspected during flight, the passengers and

cabin crew is expected to fasten their seatbelts and the pilot tries to land as soon as possible.

Fire detecting systems.

A metal detector.

Вопрос 280

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander shall submit a report to:

Ответы

the designated local authority only.

the Authority of the State of the operator only.

7500

7700

2000

Вопрос 286

What should a pilot do if his/her aircraft is subject to an act of unlawful interference and contact to an ATS unit cannot be

established?

Ответы

proceed in accordance with applicable special procedures for in-flight contingencies, where such procedures have been

established and promulgated in the Regional Supplementary Procedures (Doc 7300).

proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight by 150 m (600 ft) in an area where a

vertical separation minimum of 600 m (2 000 ft) is applied.

proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight by 250 m (700 ft) in an area where a

vertical separation minimum of 300 m (1 000 ft) is applied.

Operator

EASA

Head of Training

Вопрос 288

What should a pilot do if his/her aircraft is subject to an act of unlawful interference and contact to an ATS unit cannot be

established?

Ответы

never attempt to broadcast warnings on the VHF channel (e.g. 121.5 MHz).

proceed at a level which differs from the cruising levels normally used for IFR flight by 150 m (600 ft) in an area where a

vertical separation minimum of 600 m (2 000 ft) is applied.

1,4

1,3

2,4

Вопрос 290

The ICAO rules governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the public transport of passengers:

Ответы

When exiting the aircraft.

immediately on the opening of the exits.

Вопрос 293

In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will:

1) evacuate women and children first

2) have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts

3) prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplanes flotation ability

4) ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2, 3,4

1,2, 3,4

1,4

2,3

Вопрос 294

Who is responsible for initiating the procedures outlined in the Operations Manual in the event of an emergency?

Ответы

Sec

60 sec

132 sec

120 sec

Вопрос 296

The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing are:

1) legs together and feet flat on the floor

2) head resting against the back of the front seat

3) forearms on the armrests

4) seat belt very tightly fastened

5) head resting on the forearm

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2, 4,5

2, 3,4

1,2, 3,4

1,4,5

Вопрос 297

The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

Ответы

A landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants.

A voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants.

An inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board.

Seconds.

60 seconds.

120 seconds.

132 seconds.

Вопрос 300

The number of emergency exits in transport aircraft:

Ответы

must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.

must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50% of the

Available emergency exits.

depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.

must be arranged to allow at least 50% of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes.

Вопрос 301

What do you do after ditching when the aircraft comes to stop?

Ответы

Initiate evacuation.

Contact other aircraft in the vicinf

Extract the landing gear.

Inflate lifejacket.

Вопрос 302

When would a pilot consider making a precautionary landing?

Ответы

With an engine failure, main aerodynamic control failure or broken GPS.

M/6000 ft AGL

1 200 m/4000 ft AGL

3000 m/10000 ft AGL

Вопрос 306

According to CS-25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within:

Ответы

30 minutes.

45 minutes.

Minutes.

60 minutes.

Вопрос 307

A four-engined jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight in an

emergency:

Ответы

unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements: 2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in

Above flight level 60.

On final approach.

Over water if possible, below flight level 60.

Вопрос 309

In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and

landing climb performance requirements:

Ответы

60 minutes.

30 minutes.

90 minutes.

Minutes.

Вопрос 310

During the certification flight tests regarding fuel jettisoning it must be shown that:

1) Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard.

2) The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane.

3) Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane.

4) The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeropla

Ответы

1,4

1,2, 3,4

1,3,4

2,3

Вопрос 311

The language(s) used for dangerous goods documentations is/are:

Ответы

State of operator language.

State of departure language.

English, French and any other required language.

1,4

1,2, 3,4

2,3

Вопрос 314

The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained i

Ответы

ICAO Annex 17.

the Washington Convention.

ICAO Annex 18.

ICAO Annex 8.

Вопрос 315

A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:

1) only on himself/herself

2) in his/her hand luggage

3) in his/her checked luggage

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

Ответы

1,2,3

2,3

1,2

Вопрос 316

In compliance with the EASA AIR OPS, unless otherwise specified, when carrying dangerous goods on board a public transport

aircraft, they must be accompanied by:

Ответы

an approval document issued by the Operator.

an approval document issued by the Customs.

The shipper.

The aerodrome manager.

The station manager.

The pilot in command.

Вопрос 318

Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the relevant OPS

regulations, are classified as dangerous goods?

1) Fire extinguishers

2) Self-inflating lifejackets

3) Portable oxygen supplies

4) First-aid kits

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2,4

1,3

1,2, 3,4

1,3,4

Вопрос 319

Refer to figure 070-07.

If a package is marked with a label shown in figure "C" of the attached diagram, it contains:

Ответы

gasses.

flammable liquids.

Flammable solids.

oxides and peroxides.

Вопрос 320

Refer to figure 070-07.

If a package is marked with a label shown in figure "A" of the attached diagram, it contains:

Ответы

toxic or infectious material.

oxides and peroxides.

explosives.

radioactive material.

Вопрос 321

The content of the dangerous goods transport document is specified in the:

Ответы

EU-OPS documentation.

Technical Instructions.

Flight Manual.

Air Transport Permit.

Вопрос 322

As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading,

you:

Ответы

accept it after a visual inspection.

mention it on the Notification to Captain.

mention it on the shipper's declaration.

Infectious material.

radioactive material.

Вопрос 324

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by the:

Ответы

handling agent.

operator.

captain.

Shipper.

Вопрос 325

Refer to figure 070-07.

If a package is marked with a label shown in figure "E" of the attached diagram, it contains:

Ответы

an explosive substance.

an infectious substance.

A toxic material.

a corpse.

Вопрос 326

Refer to figure 070-07.

If a package is marked with a label shown in figure "B" of the attached diagram, it contains:

Ответы

Flammable liquids.

gasses.

oxides and peroxides.

flammable solids.

Вопрос 327

The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are listed in the:

Ответы

Poor.

unreliable.

good.

Вопрос 330

For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Ответы

tailwind is greater than 10 kts.

speed is greater than 98 kts.

water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

Hours.

3 hours.

Вопрос 332

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

Ответы

is very smooth and clean.

Is very smooth and dirty.

the tyre treads are not in a good state.

is rough textured.

Вопрос 333

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:

1) Water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2) Speed is greater than 137 kts.

3) Water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

4) Speed is greater than 117 kts.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2,3

1,4

3,4

1,2

Вопрос 334

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

1) water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

2) speed is greater than 127 kts.

3) water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

4) speed is greater than 108 kts.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

1,2

1,4

2,3

3,4

Вопрос 335

A braking action of 0.4 reported on a SNOWTAM is:

Ответы

medium

poor

Good

unreliable

Вопрос 336

In accordance to EASA AIR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25% of the required runway surface

covered with the one of the following elements:

1) a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.

2) a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.

3) compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).

4) ice, including wet ice.

5) moist grass.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

Ответы

2, 3,4

1,2, 3,4

1,3,4,5

1,3,4

Вопрос 337

The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a:

Ответы

percentage varying from 10% to 100%.

1,2

3,4

2,3

1,4

Вопрос 339

For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

Ответы

speed is greater than 96 kts.

Medium to poor.

good.

medium to good.

poor.

Вопрос 341

The type of hydroplaning that is most likely to occur at the touch down area located at both ends of the runway is called:

Ответы

rubber steaming.

dynamic.

viscous.

rubber reversion.

International Commercial Air Transport - Aeroplanes

International Commercial Air Transport - Helicopters

International Operations - Aeroplanes & Helicopters

Вопрос 2

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for a SRA non-precision approach terminating at

1 NM?

Ответы

250 ft

350 ft

200 ft

Вопрос 3

According to EASA AIR OPS, what is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?

Ответы

200 ft

350 ft

125 ft

Вопрос 4

What does abbreviation MASPS mean?

Ответы

12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Следующая ⇒

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